Anatomy Extra Questions

1. A 26-year-old female presents with right iliac fossa pain and is taken to theatre for an appendectomy. An incision is made through the skin and onto muscle with fibres passing inferiorly in an oblique direction. Which muscle is cut in this scenario?

A. Internal oblique
B. External oblique
C. Rectus abdominis
D. Transversus abdominis
E. Pyramidalis

2. Whilst examining the abdomen of a 21-year-old female with abdominal pain you notice a well defined “six-pack”. Which muscle is this?

A. Rectus abdominis
B. Transversus abdominis
C. Cremaster
D. External oblique
E. Internal oblique

3. A 26-year-old female presents with right iliac fossa pain and is taken to theatre for an appendectomy. An incision is made through the skin and onto muscle with fibres passing superiorly in an oblique direction. Into which muscle has the incision been made?

A. Transversus abdominis
B. Cremaster
C. External oblique
D. Internal oblique
E. Rectus abdominis

4. Regarding the blood supply of anterior abdominal wall, which is not true?

A. Cutaneous branches from superior and inferior epigastric arteries supply the flanks.
B. Cutaneous branches from the superior and inferior epigastric arteries supply the area near the midline.
C. Branches from the intercostal and lumbar arteries supply the flanks.
D. All the above.
E. None of the above

5. Regarding the lymphatic drainage of the anterior abdominal wall, which of the following is true?

A. The cutaneous lymph vessels above the umbilicus drain into the anterior axillary lymph nodes, while the vessels below this level drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
B. All lymphatic drainage occurs into the inguinal nodes.
C. The cutaneous lymph vessels above the umbilicus drain into the supraclavicular lymph nodes, while the vessels below this level drain into the deep inguinal lymph nodes.
D. All the above
E. None of the above

6. Which of the following characteristics about rectus sheath is correct?

A. Below the arcuate line, the posterior layer of the rectus sheath is formed by the transversalis fascia.
B. Each rectus abdominis muscle is attached by a single tendon to the pubic bone.
C. Below the arcuate line, the posterior wall of the sheath is formed by internal oblique.
D. All the above
E. None of the above

7. Which of the following is not true regarding the branches of the aorta?

A. The superior mesenteric artery supplies the gastrointestinal tract from the middle of the second part of the duodenum as far as the distal one-third of the transverse colon.
B. The coeliac trunk is surrounded by the coeliac plexus of nerves.
C. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta at the level of the first lumbar vertebra.
D. The left colic artery is the larger terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery.
E. The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta at the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum at the level of the third lumbar vertebra.

8. Which of the following is not true regarding the abdominal aorta?

A. Enters the abdomen at the level of the twelfth thoracic vertebra.
B. It divides into the two common iliac arteries in front of the fifth lumbar vertebra.
C. The common iliac arteries divide into external and internal iliac arteries in front of the sacroiliac joint.
D. The external iliac artery runs along the medial border of the psoas major muscle.
E. The superior mesenteric artery is a posterior visceral branch of the aorta.

9. Which of the following is true regarding the human rectum?

A. Drains lymph to the pre-aortic nodes.
B. Has mesentery in the posterior third.
C. Is covered anteriorly by peritoneum along its whole length.
D. Has a blood supply from the terminal branches of the superior mesenteric artery.
E. Has appendices epiploicae.

10. Which of the following is not true regarding the boundaries of epiploic foramen?

A. Anteriorly it is formed by the free border of the lesseromentum.
B. Inferiorly by the peritoneum covering the duodenum.
C. Posteriorly by inferior vena cava.
D. Posteriorly by superior vena cava.
E. Superiorly by the caudate lobe of liver.

11. Which of the following vessel is not a branch of the internal iliac artery?

A. Iliolumbar artery
B. Lateral sacral artery
C. Middle rectal artery
D. Obturator artery
E. Ovarian artery

12. Which of the following is not true regarding the appendix?

A. It is located in the retrocaecal recess.
B. The longitudinal coat of the appendix is derived from the three bands of taeniae coli.
C. Is supplied by branches of the superior mesenteric artery.
D. It is typically less than 10 cm in length in the adult.
E. McBurney’s point lies two-thirds laterally from a line from umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine.

13. Which of the following is not true regarding the pancreas?

A. Derives part of its blood supply from the splenic artery
B. Has parts in both the supracolic and infracolic compartments
C. Is pierced by the middle colic artery
D. Lies anterior to the left kidney
E. The junction of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins lies behind the gland.

14. Which of the following is not correct regarding the common bile duct?

A. Lies anterior to the first part of the duodenum
B. Lies posterior to the portal vein
C. Lies in the free edge of the lesser omentum
D. Lies to the right of the hepatic artery
E. May open into the duodenum independent of the pancreatic duct

15. Which of the following structures does not pass through the female inguinal canal?

A. Iliohypogastric nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Interior epigastric artery
D. Round ligament
E. Spermatic cord

16. Which of the following structures pass under the inguinal ligament?

A. The long saphenous vein
B. The superficial femoral artery
C. The superficial epigastric vein
D. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
E. The femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

17. Which of the following is true concerning the femoral ring?

A. It is bounded laterally by the femoral artery.
B. It is bounded medially by the lacunar ligament.
C. It is lined by peritoneum.
D. It is not traversed by lymph vessels.
E. Passes deep to the inguinal ligament.

18. In the femoral triangle, which of the following is/are true of the femoral artery?

A. Crossed by the superficial circumflex iliac vein
B. Lateral to the femoral nerve
C. Medial to the long saphenous vein
D. Posterior to the femoral branch of the genitofemoralnerve
E. Posterior to the femoral vein at the apex of the triangle

19. Which of the following is true regarding the femoral nerve?

A. Has a branch which supplies the skin of the scrotum
B. Lies within the femoral sheath
C. Lies lateral to the femoral vein
D. May supply part of the foot
E. Does not have the same origin as the obturator nerve

20. Which of the following is a branch of the femoral artery?

A. Peroneal artery
B. The ascending genicular artery
C. The deep epigastric artery
D. Medial circumflex iliac artery
E. Superficial circumflex iliac artery

21. Which of the following is not true regarding the femoral canal?

A. It contains a superficial inguinal lymph node.
B. It contains the lymph node of Cloquet.
C. Has the inguinal ligament as its anterior border.
D. Has the lacunar ligament as its medial border.
E. Has the pectineal ligament as its posterior border.

22. Which of the following is true regarding the femoral nerve?

A. It arises from the same nerve roots as the obturator nerve.
B. It supplies lateral side of the dorsum of foot.
C. It gives a branch to the scrotum.
D. It enters the femoral sheath.
E. Saphenous nerve arises from the anterior division of femoral nerve.

23. Which of the following is true concerning the great (long) saphenous vein?

A. Ascends posterior to the medial malleolus
B. Passes through the femoral canal
C. Receives blood from the posterior tibial veins
D. Passes through the cribriform fascia
E. Receives the blood from deep external pudendal veins

24. A 63-year-old man in the surgical ward is complaining of numbness over the anterior thigh and medial aspect of his right leg. He is unable to extend his right knee and the knee jerk is reduced. He had undergone a femoral aneurysm repair 3 days ago. Which is the most probable nerve damaged in this case?

A. Femoral nerve
B. Saphenous nerve
C. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
D. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
E. Sciatic nerve

25. A 33-year-old lady, who is 38 weeks pregnant, presents to her general practitioner with a 4-week history of pain and paraesthesia over the upper outer aspect of her right thigh. There is no restriction of movements in her hips or knees and her gait is normal. Which is the most likely nerve, which is affected in this case?

A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
B. Femoral nerve
C. Common peroneal nerve
D. Sciatic nerve
E. Tibial nerve

26. Please choose the most appropriate answer regarding the innervations of various muscles from the given list.

A. Triceps is supplied by radial nerve.
B. Gastrocnemius is supplied by tibial nerve.
C. Opponens pollicis is supplied by the median nerve.
D. Deltoid muscle is supplied by axillary nerve.
E. All are correct.

27. Which of the following regarding the vagina is correct?

A. The paramesonephric duct gives rise to both the uterus and the entire vagina.
B. Is 7–10 cm long.
C. The urogenital sinus gives rise to part of the vagina and the proximal part of the urethra.
D. Becomes canalised at 22 weeks of gestational age.
E. Vaginal fluid has a lower potassium concentration than plasma.

28. Presence of vaginal septa is not associated with which of the following?

A. Dysmenorrhoea
B. Dyspareunia
C. Obstructed labour
D. Uterine abnormalities
E. Easy removal in most of the cases

29. Which of the following statement is true regarding the vagina?

A. Contains mucus-secreting glands in its epithelium.
B. During reproductive life, has an acid pH.
C. Has an anterior wall longer than the posterior wall.
D. Is derived from the mesonephric duct.
E. Is related in its lower third to the bladder base.

30. Which of the following is not true regarding the vulva?

A. The urethral fold fuses, as in the male, to develop into labia minora.
B. The nerve endings of the vestibule are mostly free,with few or no corpuscles.
C. The blood supply of the labia majora is mainly derived from the external and internal pudendal arteries.
D. The labia majora contain Ruffini, Meissner, Merkel and Pacini corpuscles.
E. The Bartholin’s gland is normally not palpable.

31. From which of the following is the nerve supply tothe vulva derived?

A. Genitofemoral nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Pudendal nerve
D. All the above
E. None of the above

32. Blood supply of the vulva is derived from which of the following?

A. Deep external pudendal artery
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Superficial external pudendal artery
D. All the above
E. None of the above

33. Which of the following is not true regarding the vagina?

A. Is covered anteriorly by peritoneum.
B. Is related anteriorly and posteriorly to the Wolffian(Gartner’s) ducts.
C. It is made up of keratinized squamous epithelium.
D. The lateral vaginal walls are in contact with eachother.
E. All the above.

34. The change, which occurs in the vagina at puberty, includes which of the following?

A. An increase in the pH
B. Reduction in the number of Döderlein’s bacilli
C. Exfoliation of superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei
D. Reduction in the glycogen content of the epithelium
E. The appearance of glands in the epithelium

35. Which of the following is true regarding the vagina?

A. Has venous drainage to the external iliac vein
B. Is covered with peritoneum in its upper anterior aspect
C. Is lined by squamous epithelium
D. Is supplied in part by the pudendal nerve
E. Has an anterior wall that is longer than the posterior wall

36. The lymphatic drainage of the cervix does not go to which of the following

A. Directly to the para-aortic nodes
B. To the internal iliac nodes
C. To the obturator node
D. To the superficial inguinal nodes
E. None of the above

37. Which of the following statements about the cervix is correct?

A. Nulliparous cervix is slit-shaped.
B. Peritoneum covers the upper part of the vagina posteriorly.
C. The isthmus is part of the cervix.
D. Cervix is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
E. The squamocolumnar junction is found at the internal os.

38. Which of the following statement concerning the uterus is correct?

A. It is formed from the mesonephric ducts.
B. Pain from the body of the uterus is carried by the pelvic splanchnic nerves.
C. The uterine artery is a branch of the internal iliacartery.
D. The uterine artery passes below the ureter.
E. The uterus is supported only by the levator ani muscles.

39. Which of the following is not true regarding the uterus and the cervix?

A. The body of the uterus and cervix are relatively insensitive to cutting and burning.
B. The cavity of the uterus, as in the cervix is fusiform in shape.
C. The endometrial lining and not the cervical lining is shed at the time of menstruation.
D. The lymphatics of the cervix drain to the external and internal iliac nodes.
E. In pregnancy the internal os is located in the cervix rather than the isthmus.

40. Which of the following statement is true concerning retroversion of the uterus?

A. It is a common cause of subfertility.
B. May be corrected by a Fothergill operation.
C. Should be corrected with a Hodge pessary in early pregnancy.
D. It is caused by heavyweight lifting.
E. It may occur in 20% of normal women.

41. Which of the following is true regarding the innervation of the uterus and birth canal?

A. A paracervical nerve block may be used for a forceps delivery.
B. The pudendal nerve block provides good pain relief for the second stage of labour.
C. The parasympathetic nervous system causes contraction of the pregnant uterus.
D. The uterus contains alpha and beta receptors.
E. Pudendal nerve arises from S2 to S3 nerve roots.

42. Which of the following is not true regarding theovary?

A. Has lymphatic drainage to the para-aortic nodes
B. It is not covered by peritoneum
C. Is sensitive to pressure
D. Lies posterior to the broad ligament
E. Receives its blood supply from a branch of the internal iliac artery.

43. Which of the following regarding the ovary is correct?

A. The ovaries do not descend into the pelvic cavity until childhood.
B. The ovarian artery arises from the aorta at the level of the third lumbar vertebra.
C. The ureter passes in front of the ovary at the level of the bifurcation of the iliac arteries.
D. The nerve supply to the ovary is derived exclusively from parasympathetic fibres.
E. During pregnancy the enlarged uterus pushes the ovaries down into the pelvis.

44. Which of the following does not contribute to the boundaries of the ovarian fossa?

A. External iliac vein
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Internal pudendal artery
D. Obliterated umbilical artery
E. Ureter

45. The outermost portion of the ovary is covered by which of the following?

A. Adipocytes
B. Cuboidal cells
C. Intercalary cells
D. Mesothelial cells
E. Smooth muscle cells

46. Which of the following is not true concerning ovarian function?

A. Circulating inhibin concentrations are a marker of granulosa cell function.
B. Granulosa cells secrete oestradiol.
C. Insulin-like growth factor (somatomedin C) is not secreted by the ovary.
D. Oestradiol is derived from androgen precursors.
E. Progesterone is the major steroid of the developing follicle.

47. Which of the following organs does not respond to oestrogens?

A. Breasts
B. Cervical glands
C. Fallopian tube
D. Vaginal epithelium
E. None of the above

48. Which of the following is not true regarding the fallopian tube?

A. Has a thick muscle layer in the isthmus
B. Is actively motile
C. Is covered by peritoneum
D. Lies anterior to the round ligament
E. Possesses a cilial lining

49. Which of the following is true regarding the right ovary?

A. Is covered by peritoneum in the adult
B. Receives its blood supply from the internal iliac artery
C. Has the ovarian ligament attached to its medial pole
D. Its venous drainage is to the right renal vein
E. Has lymphatic drainage to the internal iliac nodes

50. Which of the following is true regarding the anal sphincter?

A. The internal anal sphincter is attached to the outer longitudinal fibres of the rectum.
B. Deep external anal sphincter merges with puborectalis.
C. The internal anal sphincter is supplied by inferior rectal nerve.
D. The external anal sphincter is supplied by the inferior hypogastric plexus.
E. The superficial external anal sphincter is not attached to the coccyx

51. A healthy 5 ft 6 in. tall, adult female is most likely to have a pelvic inlet that would be classified as which of the following Caldwell-Moloy types?

A. Android
B. Platypelloid
C. Anthropoid
D. Gynecoid
E. Triangular

52. Hernias occur more commonly in men than in women beneath the thickened lower margin of a fascial aponeurosis extending from the pubic tubercle to the anterior superior iliac spine. This thickened fascia is called which of the following?

A. Inguinal ligament
B. Cooper’s ligament
C. Linea alba
D. Posterior rectus sheath
E. Round ligament

53. The inguinal canal in an adult female was opened surgically. Which of the following structures would normally be found?

A. A cyst of the canal of Nuck
B. Gartner’s duct cyst
C. Cooper’s ligament
D. The round ligament and the ilioinguinal nerve
E. The pyramidalis muscle

54. The human pelvis is a complex structure that permits upright posture and being capable with childbirth despite the relatively large fetal head. Which option includes all of the bones that make up the pelivs?

A Trochanter, hip socket, ischium, sacrum, and pubis
B. Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum, and coccyx
C. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
D. Sacrum, ischium, ilium, and pubis
E. Trochanter, sacrum, coccyx, ilium, and pubis

55. During normal delivery, an infant must pass through the maternal true pelvis. Which of the following most accurately describes the characteristics of the true pelvis?

A. It has an oval outlet.
B. It has three defining planes: an inlet, a midplane, and an outlet.
C. It has an inlet made up of a double triangle.
D. It is completely formed by two fused bones.
E. It lies between the wings of the paired ileum.

56. The part of the pelvis lying above the linea ter-minalis has little effect on a woman’s ability to deliver a baby vaginally. What is the name of this portion of the pelvis?

A. True pelvis
B. Midplane
C. Outlet
D. False pelvis
E. Sacrum

57. The plane from the sacral promontory to the inner posterior surface of the pubic symphysis is an important dimension of the pelvis for normal delivery. What is the name of this plane?

A. True conjugate
B. Obstetric conjugate
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Bi-ischial diameter
E. Oblique diameter

58. During an operation, a midline incision was made at an anatomic location 2 cm below the umbilicus. Which of the following lists (in order) the layers of the anterior abdominal wall as they would be incised or separated?

A. Skin, subcutaneous fat, superficial fascia (Camper’s), deep fascia (Scarpa’s), fascial muscle cover (anterior rectus sheath), rectus muscle, a deep fascial muscle cover (posterior rectus sheath), preperitoneal fat, and peritoneum
B. Skin, subcutaneous fat, superficial fascia (Scarpa’s), deep fascia (Camper’s), fascial muscle covering (anterior abdominal sheath), transverse abdominal muscle, a deep fascial muscle cover (posterior rectus sheath), preperitoneal fat, and peritoneum
C. Skin, subcutaneous fat, superficial fascia (Camper’s), deep fascia (Scarpa’s), fascial muscle cover (anterior rectus sheath), rectus muscle, a deep fascial muscle cover (posterior rectus sheath), peritoneum, and preperitoneal fat
D. Skin, subcutaneous fat, superficial fascia (Scarpa’s), deep fascia (Camper’s), fascial muscle cover (anterior rectus sheath), rectus muscle, a deep fascial muscle cover (posterior rectus sheath), preperitoneal fat, and peritoneum
E. Skin, subcutaneous fat, superficial fascia (Camper’s), deep fascia (Scarpa’s), fascial muscle cover (anterior rectus sheath), transverse abdominal muscle, a deep fascial muscle covering (posterior rectus sheath), preperitoneal fat, and peritoneum

59. Under the influence of relaxin and the pressure of pregnancy the junction between the two pubic bones may become unstable near the time of delivery. This will result in a waddling gait in the woman to minimize discomfort. What is this junction called?

A. Sacroiliac joint
B. Symphysis
C. Sacrococcygeal joint
D. Piriformis
E. Intervertebral joint

60. The shape of the escutcheon may change with masculinization. The presence of a male escutcheon in a female is one of the clinical signs of hirsutism or increased testosterone. What is the usual shape of the escutcheon in the normal female?

A. Diamond shaped
B. Triangular
C. Oval
D. Circular
E. Heart shaped

61. During the performance of a pelvic examination, the area of the Bartholin’s ducts should be inspected. Where do the Bartholin’s glands’ ducts open?

A. Into the midline of the posterior fourchette
B. Bilaterally, beneath the urethra
C. Bilaterally, on the inner surface of the labia majora
D. Bilaterally, into the posterior vaginal vestibule
E. Bilaterally, approximately 1 cm lateral to the clitoris

62. During a physical examination myrtiform caruncles may be noted. What are they?

A. Circumferential nodules in the areola of the breast
B. Healing Bartholin’s cysts
C. Remnants of the Wolffian duct
D. Remnants of the hymen
E. Remnants of the Müllerian duct

63. The clitoris is a major sensory sexual organ. Where does it get its major nerve supply from?

A. Lumbar spinal nerve
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Ilioinguinal nerve
E. Anterior gluteal nerve

64. In the uterus of a normal female infant, what is the size relationship of the cervix, isthmus, and fundus?

A. The cervix is larger than the fundus.
B. The isthmus is longer than either the cervix or the fundus.
C. They are of equal size.
D. The fundus is the largest portion.
E. The cervix is smaller than either the isthmus or the fundus.

65. How do nabothian cysts occur?

A. Wolffian duct remnants
B. Blockage of crypts in the uterine cervix
C. Squamous cell debris that causes cervical irritation
D. Carcinoma
E. Paramesonephric remnants

66. What is the uterine corpus mainly composed of?

A. Fibrous tissue
B. Estrogen receptors
C. Smooth muscle
D. Elastic tissue
E. Endometrium

67. The uterus and adnexa have some relatively fixed anatomic characteristics that can be noted on pelvic examination or laparoscopic observation. Which of the following characteristics would you most likely find in a normal patient?

A. Retroflexion of the uterus
B. Ovaries caudad to the cervix
C. Round ligaments attached to the uterus posterior to the insertion of the fallopian tubes
D. Immobility of the uterus
E. Cervix not palpable on rectal examination

68. A patient presents approximately 10 years post-menopausal with complaints of pressure vaginally and the sensation that something is falling out. When told she has a fallen uterus, she wonders if it is due to the damage from her round ligaments since she had a great deal of round ligament pain during her pregnancies. Which of the following ligaments provide the most support to the uterus in terms of preventing prolapse?

A. Broad ligaments
B. Round ligaments
C. Utero-ovarian ligaments
D. Cardinal ligaments
E. Arcuate ligament

69. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) occurs in women because of which of the following characteristics of the fallopian tube?

A. It is a conduit from the peritoneal space to the uterine cavity.
B. It is found in the utero-ovarian ligament.
C. It has five separate parts.
D. It is attached to the ipsilateral ovary by the mesosalpinx.
E. It is entirely extraperitoneal.

70. In a female, which of the following best describes the urogenital diaphragm?

A. Includes the fascial covering of the deep transverse perineal muscle
B. Encloses the ischiorectal fossa
C. Is synonymous with the pelvic diaphragm
D. Is located in the anal triangle
E. Envelops the Bartholin’s gland

71. The levator ani is the major component of the pelvic diaphragm, which is commonly compromised during pregnancy and delivery with resulting prolapse of uterus, bladder/urethra, and /or rectum. This is especially true if obstetric lacerations are not repaired keeping the normal anatomical relationships in mind. Which of the following is the best description of the levator ani?

A. A superficial muscular sling of the pelvis
B. A tripartite muscle of the pelvic floor penetrated by the urethra, vagina, and rectum
C. Is made up of the bulbocavernosus, the ischiocavernosus, and the superficial transverse perineal muscle
D. A muscle that abducts the thighs
E. Is part of the deep transverse perineal muscle

72. Which of the following is the best description of the pelvic diaphragm?

A. Made up mainly by the coccygeus
B. Covered on one side by fascia and on the other by peritoneum
C. A muscle innervated by L2, L3, and L4
D. An extension of the sacrococcygeal ligament
E. Synonymous with the pelvic floor

73. When performing a hysterectomy, the surgeon should be aware that at its closest position to the cervix, the ureter is normally separated from the cervix by which of the following distances?

A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.2 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 3 cm
E. 5 cm

74. When performing surgery, the position of important structures should be well known to avoid injury.What is the ureter’s relationship to the arteries in its course through the pelvis?

A. Anterior to the internal iliac and uterine arteries
B. Posterior to the iliac artery and anterior to the uterine artery
C. Anterior to the uterine artery and posterior to the iliac artery
D. Posterior to the uterine artery and medial to the iliac artery
E. Posterior to the uterine artery and posterior to the hypogastric artery

75. Urinary incontinence is a major problem for some women. Which of the following characteristics of the female urethra helps prevent incontinence?

A. Its 15- to 20-cm length
B. Its junction with the bladder at the level of the midtrigone
C. Its true anatomic sphincter
D. Its upper two-thirds integration with the anterior vaginal wall
E. Its intrinsic resting tone

76. The anatomy of the spinal cord and dural space is important when giving regional spinal anesthesia. At what approximate spinal level do the dural space and the spinal cord, respectively, end?

A. T10, T8
B. L2, T10
C. L5, T12
D. S2, L2
E. S5, S2

77. During a hysterectomy, vaginal bleeding may be a significant complication even after removal of the uterus. Such bleeding would most likely originate from which of the following arteries?

A. Internal pudendal
B. Superior hemorrhoidal
C. Inferior mesenteric
D. Superior vesical
E. Ovarian

78. Anterior vulvar cancer is most likely to spread primarily to which of the following lymph nodes?

A. Inguinal
B. Para-aortic
C. Obturator
D. Femoral
E. Ovarian

79. Which artery provides the main blood supply to the vulva?

A. Pudendal
B. Inferior hemorrhoidal
C. Ilioinguinal
D. Femoral
E. Inferiornferior hypogastric

80. During delivery, which of the following muscles is most likely to be obviously torn?

A. Ischiocavernosus muscle
B. Bulbocavernosus muscle
C. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
D. Levator ani muscle
E. Coccygeus

81. A patient develops a neurologic disease that destroys components of S2, S3, S4 bilaterally. What clinical manifestation would you expect the patient to have as a result?

A. Inability to abduct her thigh
B. Rectal incontinence
C. Painless menses
D. Labor without pain
E. inability to extend her knees

82. A 56-year-old woman comes to your office for a yearly examination. During physical examination, you notice that her left breast has a 2-cm area of retraction in the upper-outer quadrant that can be seen by simple inspection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Mondor’s disease
B. Benign fibroadenoma
C. Fibrocystic change
D. Breast cancer
E. Intraductal polyp

83. A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant comes in complaining of lumps in her breasts. These lumps are multiple in number and on inspection are within the areola. By palpation they seem to be small, superficial, uniform in size, nontender, and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Mondor’s disease
B. Montgomery’s follicles
C. Inflammatory breast carcinoma
D. Fibrocystic breast changes
E. Lactiferous ducts

84. A woman has a radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy for Stage I carcinoma of the cervix. After surgery she complains that she cannot adduct her left leg and there is an absence of sensation on the medial aspect of her left thigh. What is the most likely explanation?

A. Injury to the obturator nerve
B. Femoral nerve injury
C. Hematoma in the pouch of Douglas
D. Injury to the uterosacral nerve
E. Injury to the pudendal nerve

85. During delivery of a first twin, a very tight nuchal cord is reduced from the baby’s neck by clamping and dividing it. After this, the second twin (as yet unborn) develops severe fetal distress. Of thefollowing, what is the most likely mechanism for the distress in the second twin?

A. A twin-to-twin transfusion before birth
B. The second twin may no longer be connected to its placenta
C. Placenta previa in the second twin
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
E. Uterine rupture

Anatomy Extra Questions

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