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Breech And ECV Extra Questions

Breech And ECV Extra Questions

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  1. Question 1 of 16
    1. Question

    1. A woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with an uncomplicated breech presentation and consents to undergo an external cephalic version (ECV) after consultation. Unfortunately, due to logistics, this service will not be available when she is 37 weeks. What management is most appropriate?

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  2. Question 2 of 16
    2. Question

    2. A woman undergoes a successful external cephalic version at 37 weeks gestation. What is the chance of spontaneous reversion to breech?

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  3. Question 3 of 16
    3. Question

    3. Which tocolytic agent has been proven to increase the success of an ECV?

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  4. Question 4 of 16
    4. Question

    4. A Gravida 3, Para 2 (both full term normal deliveries) is diagnosed with breech presentation at 35+1 weeks of gestation and is keen to have an external cephalic version. At what gestation is external cephalic version recommended for this mother?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  5. Question 5 of 16
    5. Question

    5. Ms XY is 36/40 weeks pregnant. She is undergoing an ECV for breech presentation today. She is known to be RH-negative and non-sensitised. She had 2 anti-D injections ( RAADP) at 28 and 34 weeks in keeping with the hospital policy. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  6. Question 6 of 16
    6. Question

    6. A 30 years old pregnant woman at 39 weeks came in A&E with strong labour pains. On examination, Os is fully dilated, breech presentation, FHR normal. Patient counselled regarding pros and cons of breech delivery. She has consented for vaginal breech delivery. What is the initial management at this stage ?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  7. Question 7 of 16
    7. Question

    7. As an ST 5 preparing foryour completion of acertified training, you are asked to look into the department Caesarean section rate, compare it with other low-Caesarean section rate countries and propose some changes in the practices at your department. You find that the rate of vaginal delivery for breech presentation was very low at only 7%. To how much should vaginal delivery for breech presentations be increased in order to reduce the overall Caesarean section rate substantially?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  8. Question 8 of 16
    8. Question

    8. A 32-year-old woman is on her third pregnancy with two previous uncomplicated vaginal deliveries. She presented in labour. She has a twin pregnancy and both babies are in a cephalic presentation. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date and both twins are above the 50th centile for growth with no discordant growth. The CTG has been normal throughout labour. The first twin is delivered uneventfully. The second twin is found to be transverse. What would be the best immediate action?

    Correct
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  9. Question 9 of 16
    9. Question

    9. You are supervising an ST2 performing an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation. He makes a small laceration on the baby’s right buttock when incising the uterus. It is not actively bleeding and is approximately 1.5cm in length and superficial. The ST2 is extremely upset about this complication. What is the single most appropriate next step?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  10. Question 10 of 16
    10. Question

    10. A 33-year-old P1 presents in clinic with a history of previous caesarean section for breech presentation. Her booking BMI is 34 and she is currently at 40+10 gestation. She is very keen for vaginal birth. What are her chances of a successful vaginal birth?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  11. Question 11 of 16
    11. Question

    11. A third gravida with breech presentation presents in the triage ward with leaking per vaginum without any labour pains at 32 weeks. On examination, FHR is 140 bpm, cervix is 4 cm dilated with a loop of cord lying in the vagina with good cord pulsations. You decide to perform a category 1 caesarean section. What is the best intervention to prevent fetal asphyxia until she is transferred to theatre?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  12. Question 12 of 16
    12. Question

    12. What is the approximate incidence of breech presentation at 28 weeks of gestation?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  13. Question 13 of 16
    13. Question

    13. A 20-year-old primigravida presents to the delivery suite with rupture of membranes and labour pains for one hour. She is currently 32+4 weeks pregnant and a scan 5 days ago showed flexed breech with mild oligohydramnios. The estimated baby weight according to the last scan was 2050 grams. She has regular contractions and the cervix is 5 centimetres dilated, fully effaced with breech presentation at 0 station. She is transferred to theatre. On examination the breech has delivered with fetal head inside with a tight cervix. What is the best intervention for a safe delivery in this situation?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  14. Question 14 of 16
    14. Question

    14. A 20-year-old woman is 36 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy and is being reviewed in the antenatal clinic. A recent obstetric growth scan confirms breech presentation of a normally grown fetus with normal liquor volume. She has no other complicating medical or obstetric disorders. She is deciding between planned vaginal or elective caesarean (LSCS) modes of delivery. Which of the following is correct in relation to the counselling she will receive?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  15. Question 15 of 16
    15. Question

    15. Mrs XY is 36/40 weeks pregnant. She is undergoing an ECV for breech presentation today. She is known to be RH-negative and non-sensitised. She had 2 anti-D injections (RAADP) at 28 and 34 weeks in keeping with the hospital policy. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her?

    Correct
    Incorrect
  16. Question 16 of 16
    16. Question

    16. Ms XY is 35/40 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. Her USS today reveals a baby with extended breech presentation. What is the incidence of breech presentation at term?

    Correct
    Incorrect
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