EBCOG Part 1 Oncology – Day 1 SBA

1.With respect to adenocarcinoma of the cervix, which of the following statement is not correct?

2. .A 32 year old nulliparous woman has suffered postcoital & intermenstrual bleeding for 10 weeks before being diagnosed with stgT1a1 cervical cancer. & radiological examination is negative for LVSIWhat is the most appropriate management?

3.A 37 year old woman is diagnosed with stg1b1 cervical SCC on histological & clinical assessment.What is the most appropriate radiological investigation for this patient?

4.Which type of HPV is strongly associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix?

5.Worldwide cervical cancer is the 2nd most common malignancy in females.At what age does it have a maximum incidence?

6.A 25 year old lady was found to have an early stage cervical cancer.She has not completed her family & wants to have fertility sparing surgery.Tumours which are squamous cell carcinomas & whose diameter is less than how many cm can be considered for fertility sparing surgery?

7.18 year old presents with 6 month history of postcoital & intermenstrual bleeding She is using OCPs for 3 years.Her 23 year old sister has just completed treatment for a SCC of cervix.On exam ,the cervix displays a prominent ectropion.screening for STIs is negative.What is the most appropriate course of action?

8.Mrs xy is 55 years old .She underwent TAH + BSO 4 weeks ago .Her pre operative histology following a prior loop excision of the cervix suggested incompletely excised CIN 3 .She is at consultant led follow up clinic to discuss her further management .Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her ?

9. 53 year old woman is diagnosed with stage1A1 cervical squamous cell carcinoma after histology, clinical and radiological assessment . What is the most appropriate management plan ?

10. 25 year old P0 ,he who wished to preserve future fertility ,underwent a cervical conization after an unsatisfactory colposcopy . The conization specimen demonstrated an invasive carcinoma of the cervix infiltrating 2.5 mm below the basement membrane .There was no evidence of LVSI ,and the margins of the cone were free of dysplasia or carcinoma .What would be the best strategy of management for this patient ?