Physiology Extra Questions

1. Which of the following is not true regarding neutrophil granulocytes?

A. Are the most common leucocyte in normal blood
B. Contain proteolytic enzymes
C. Have a lifespan in the circulation of 3–4 weeks
D. Contain actin and myosin microfilaments
E. Are present in high concentration in pus

2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is increased in the following circumstances?

A. Following the infusion of high-molecular-weight dextran
B. In men compared with women
C. In polycythaemia rubra vera
D. Increase in the plasma fibrinogen concentrations
E. In young age

3. Will the following factors lower the ESR?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Female gender
C. Macrocytosis
D. Polycythaemia
E. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. Prothrombin time is not increased in which of the following?

A. Aspirin therapy
B. Cirrhosis
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Unfractionated heparin therapy
E. Warfarin therapy

5. Normal clotting of blood requires

A. Inactivation of heparin
B. Inactivation of plasmin (fibrinolysin)
C. Calcium ions
D. An adequate intake of vitamin D
E. An adequate intake of vitamin C

6. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

A. Is affected by prothrombin
B. Involves the disruption of certain peptide linkages by a proteolytic enzyme
C. Is followed by reduced polymerisation of fibrin monomers
D. Is not inhibited by heparin
E. Is reversed by plasmin (fibrinolysin)

7. A 15-year-old child is admitted to hospital with recent onset of widespread purpura (pin-head areas of haemorrhage into the skin). What is the most likely abnormality to be revealed by the laboratory investigations in this case?

A. Deficiency of vitamin K
B. Deficiency of factor VIII
C. Increased fibrinogen level
D. Platelet count 90 x 109 per litre
E. Deficiency of prothrombin

8. A 50-year-old man is receiving anti-coagulant therapy (warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist) after heart valve replacement. He is admitted to hospital with haematuria (blood in the urine) and his INR (international normalised ratio, a measure of the prothrombin clotting time in relation to the normal time) is found to be 4.2. What is the most likely abnormality to be revealed by the laboratory investigations in this case?

A. Deficiency of vitamin K
B. Deficiency of factor VIII
C. Increased fibrinogen level
D. Platelet count 20 x 109 per litre
E. Deficiency of prothrombin

9. A 90-year-old woman has blotchy purple areas about 5 cm diameter on her hands and arms. They are not uncomfortable and she has no health complaints. What is the most likely abnormality to be revealed by the laboratory investigations in this case?

A. Capillary abnormality
B. Deficiency of prothrombin
C. Increased fibrinogen level
D. Platelet count 20 × 109 per litre
E. Deficiency of vitamin K

10. A 70-year-old man is operated on for aneurysm of aorta. Severe bleeding requires infusion of forty units of blood. His recovery is complicated by a bleeding tendency and he is found to have a very low level of fibrinogen. His treatment includes administration of heparin. What is the most likely abnormality to be revealed by the laboratory investigations in this case?

A. Deficiency of vitamin K
B. Deficiency of factor VIII
C. Increased fibrinogen level
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
E. Deficiency of prothrombin

11. A 10-year-old child with no known medical problems has been admitted to hospital for persistent bleeding after tooth extraction. Haemostasis had been achieved initially after the extraction but subsequently prolonged oozing from the tooth socket began. What is the most likely abnormality to be revealed by the laboratory investigations in this case?

A. Deficiency of factor VIII
B. Deficiency of vitamin K
C. Increased fibrinogen level
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
E. Deficiency of prothrombin

12. Which of the following substances occur in lower concentration in foetal blood in comparison to the maternal blood?

A. Amino acids
B. Ca2+
C. CO2
D. Glucose
E. Urea

13. Which of the following is not true regarding prostaglandins?

A. Are involved in the onset of labour
B. Are oxytocic
C. Have a role in causing dysmenorrhoea
D. Maintains the corpus luteum in early pregnancy
E. May be important in the development of menorrhagia

14. Which of the following is not true regarding bleeding from a small cut in the skin?

A. Is normally diminished by local vascular spasm
B. Ceases within about five minutes in normal people
C. Is prolonged in severe factor VIII (anti-haemophilic globulin) deficiency
D. Is greater from warm skin than from cold skin
E. Is reduced if the affected limb is elevated

15. Which of the following is not correct regarding the monocytes?

A. Originate from precursor cells in bone marrow
B. Can increase in number when their parent cells are stimulated by factors released from activated lymphocytes
C. Unlike granulocytes, do not migrate across capillary walls
D. Can transform into large multi-nucleated cells in certain chronic infections
E. Manufacture immunoglobulin M

16. Which of the following is not correct regarding the erythrocytes?

A. Are responsible for the major part of blood viscosity
B. Contain the enzyme carbonic anhydrase
C. Metabolise glucose to produce CO2 and H2O
D. Swell to bursting point when suspended in 0.9 percent (150 mmol/litre) saline
E. The walls deform easily to squeeze through capillaries

17. A typical lymphocytosis is not a feature of which of the following diseases?

A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection
C. Influenza B infection
D. Rubella infection
E. Toxoplasmosis

18. Which of the following is true regarding T lymphocytes?

A. Are infected by Epstein-Barr virus in infectious mononucleosis
B. Are the primary host response in bacterial infection
C. Compose the majority of lymphocytes in plasma
D. T-cell lymphoma has a better prognosis in comparison to B cell lymphoma
E. Produce IgG

19. Red cell formation is increased in which of the following?

A. In blood donors one week after a blood donation
B. In patients with haemolytic anaemia
C. By giving injections of erythropoietin to nephrectomised patients
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

20. Vitamin B12 deficiency may

A. Result from disease of the terminal part of the ileum
B. Cause a reduction in the circulating platelet level
C. Cause pathological changes in the central nervous system
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

21. Which of the following statement regarding platelets is not true?

A. In a normal person, 20% of the platelets are found in the spleen
B. Their life span in circulation is about 9–10 days
C. They are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes
D. They contain adenosine diphosphate and serotonin
E. They produce prostacyclin

22. Circulating red blood cells

A. Are about 1 percent nucleated
B. May show an intracellular network pattern if appropriately stained
C. Are distributed evenly across the blood stream in large blood vessels
D. Travel at slower velocity in venules than in capillaries
E. Can easily pass through the capillaries without undergoing any deformation

23. Which of the following statement is true regarding blood eosinophils?

A. Have agranular cytoplasm
B. Are about a quarter of all leucocytes
C. Are relatively scarce in the mucosa of the respiratory,urinary and alimentary tracts
D. Release cytokines
E. Increase in number in viral infections

24. Which of the following is not correct regarding lymph?

A. Contains plasma proteins
B. Lymph vessels are involved in the uptake and transport of absorbed fat
C. Production increases during muscular activity
D. Does not normally contain cells
E. Flow is aided by contraction of adjacent skeletal muscles

25. Which of the following is correct regarding the deficiency of factor VIII (anti-haemophilic globulin)?

A. Increases the bleeding time
B. Is due to an abnormal gene on the Y chromosome
C. To 75 percent of its normal value results in excessive bleeding after tooth extraction
D. Causes small (petechial) haemorrhages into the skin to cause purpura
E. Affects the intrinsic pathway for blood coagulation

26. Which of the following statement is true regarding the cell membranes in skeletal muscle?

A. Are impermeable to fat-soluble substances
B. Are more permeable to sodium than to potassium ions
C. Becomes less permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin
D. Become less permeable to potassium in the presence of insulin
E. Show invaginations which connect to a system of intracellular tubules involved in excitation contraction Coupling

27. Which of the following is true about the smooth muscle cells?

A. Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
B. Do not contain actin and myosin
C. Mitochondria are absent
D. Present a striated appearance
E. Do not cause spontaneous muscle contraction

28. Which of the following is not true regarding the prothrombin time (PT)?

A. Assesses the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade
B. Is increased with low-molecular-weight heparin
C. Is increased with warfarin
D. Is prolonged in patients with fat malabsorption
E. May be restored to normal by the administration of vitamin K

29. Pulmonary surfactant increases which of the following?

A. The surface tension of the fluid lining alveolar walls
B. Lung compliance
C. In effectiveness as the lungs are inflated
D. In amount when pulmonary blood flow is interrupted
E. Breathing difficulties in the foetuses during the last month of pregnancy

30. Which of the following is not true regarding the respiratory centre?

A. Is in the medulla oblongata
B. Sends impulses to inspiratory muscles during quiet breathing
C. Sends impulses to expiratory muscles during quiet breathing
D. Is involved in the swallowing reflex
E. Is involved in the vomiting reflex

31. Which of the following regarding the carotid bodies is not correct?

A. Are stretch receptors in the walls of the internal carotid arteries
B. Have the greatest flow rate/unit volume yet described in the body
C. Are influenced more by blood PO2 than by its oxygen content
D. Generate more afferent impulses when blood H+ ion concentration rises
E. The aortic bodies are mainly responsible for the increased ventilation in hypoxia

32. Which of the following statement is correct regarding carbon dioxide?

A. Is carried as carboxyhaemoglobin on the haemoglobin molecule
B. Uptake by the blood increases its oxygen-binding power
C. Uptake by the blood leads to similar increases in H+and HCO3_ ion concentrations
D. Stimulates ventilation when breathed at a concentrationof 20 percent
E. Content is greater than oxygen content in arterialblood

33. Bronchial smooth muscle contracts in response to

A. Bronchial mucosal irritation
B. Local beta-adrenoceptor stimulation
C. Circulating noradrenaline
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

34. Which of the following is/are true concerning the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC)?

A. At 75% saturation the PO2 is 40 mmHg (5.3 kPa)
B. Is hyperbolic in shape
C. Is shifted to the left by increase in 2,3-DPG
D. Is shifted to the right in methaemoglobinaemia
E. The Bohr effect shifts the curve to the left

35. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifted to the left in which of the following conditions?

A. Alkalosis
B. Hypoxia
C. Increased pCO2
D. Increasing body temperature
E. Increasing concentration of 2,3-DPG

36. Which of the following statement regarding the renal clearance of a substance is correct?

A. Is inversely related to its urinary concentration, U
B. Is indirectly related to the rate of urine formation, V
C. Is directly related to its plasma concentration, P
D. Is expressed in units of volume per unit time
E. Must fall in the presence of metabolic poisons

37. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the fluid in the distal part of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A. Urea concentration is less than in Bowman’s capsule
B. pH is less than 6 when the kidneys are excreting an acid urine
C. Glucose concentration is similar to that in plasma
D. Osmolality is about 25 percent that of glomerular filtrate
E. Bicarbonate concentration is lower than in plasma

38. Which of the following is not correct regarding reabsorption by the renal tubules?

A. More water every hour than the entire plasma volume is reabsorbed
B. All filtered HCO3– in cases of respiratory acidosis
C. All filtered amino acids
D. All filtered plasma proteins
E. More K+ than Cl–

39. A s plasma glucose concentration rises above normal, glucose

A. Filtration decreases linearly
B. Transport maximum Tm increases linearly
C. Clearance increases linearly
D. Reabsorption increases and then levels off
E. Excretion increases and then decreases

40. Hydrostatic pressure in renal glomerular capillaries

A. Is lower than pressure in efferent arterioles
B. Rises when afferent arterioles constrict
C. Is lower than in most capillaries at heart level
D. Falls by 10% when arterial pressure falls by 10%
E. Falls along the length of the capillary

41. Which of the following is true concerning creatinine?

A. Has a plasma clearance rate equivalent to renal plasma flow
B. Is filtered out by the glomerulus
C. Is reabsorbed significantly by the proximal tubules
D. Plasma concentration does not change after protein ingestion
E. Plasma concentration increases during the first trimester of pregnancy

42. Which of the following substances can be reabsorbed from the renal tubule?

A. Creatinine
B. Inulin
C. Mannitol
D. Sucrose
E. Urea

43. In which of the regions of the nephron is the macula densa tissue situated?

A. Thick ascending limb
B. Thin descending limb
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Proximal straight tubule
E. Medullary collecting duct

44. Which of the following regions of nephron does the water leave via diffusion?

A. Descending thin limb
B. Thick ascending limb
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Distal convoluted tubule
E. Bowman’s capsule

45. This enzyme is present in the liver cell cytosol, brain and myocardium. A rise may occur in hepatitis and myocardial infarction (MI).

A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
B. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D. γ-Glutamyl transpeptidase
E. C-reactive protein (CRP)

46. This is a microsomal enzyme. Its activity can be induced by phenytoin.

A. γ-Glutamyl transpeptidase
B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
D. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
E. None of the above

47. Which of the following is not correct concerning bile?

A. 95% is reabsorbed in the terminal ileum
B. Has a pH of 8
C. Increases the absorption of vitamin K
D. Is concentrated under the influence of secretin
E. Production is inhibited after vagal stimulation

48. Glomerular filtration rate may be measured using

A. Insulin
B. Para-aminohippuric acid
C. Glucagon
D. Glucose
E. Inulin

49. Which of the following statements regarding the cerebrospinal fluid is correct?

A. Is actively secreted by the choroid plexus
B. Is the main source of the brain’s nutrition
C. Has the same pH as arterial blood
D. Has a higher glucose concentration than has plasma
E. Has a higher calcium concentration than has plasma

50. Which of the following has a lower concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) than plasma?

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Bicarbonate
E. None of the above

51. What percentage of total body water is intracellular

A. 66%
B. 40%
C. 33%
D. 20%
E. 28%

52. Where in the kidney is potassium completely reabsorbed?

A. Bowman's capsule
B. Distal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle
C. Proximal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule and Proximal convoluted tubule
E. Collecting duct

53. Where in the kidney is the majority of bicarbonate reabsorbed?

B. Collecting duct
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. loop of Henle
E. proximal convoluted tubule

54. Insensible loss of water from skin and lungs in 70-year-old healthy woman is

A. 100 ml/day
B. 450 ml/day
C. 850 ml/day
D. 1350 ml/day
E. 2600 ml/day

55. Which neurotransmitter is secreted onto the adrenal medulla?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
E. Serotonin

56. Which hormone is secreted by the placenta and fetal adrenal gland, promotes
maturation of the fetal lungs?

A. Androstenedione
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone
C. Corticosterone
D. Cortisol
E. Cortisone

57. A Women with 150cm height and 90 kgs weight, what is her category of BMI? (MARCH 2017)

A. Normal
B. Overweight
C. Obesity Class I
D. Obesity Class II
E. Obesity Class III

58. Glucocorticoids are secreted from which region of the adrenal gland? (MARCH 2017)

A. Adrenal capsule
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona glomerulosa
D. Zona fasciculata
E. Adrenal medulla

59. Which cells produce Mullerian-inhibiting substance in fetal testis? (MARCH 2017)

A. Interstitial cells of Leydig
B. Interstitial macrophages
C. Sertoli cells
D. Theca cells
E. Granulosa cells

60. What hormone secreted by placenta leading to fetal diuresis? (MARCH 2017)

A. Relaxin.
B. Estriol
C. Oxytocin
D. Vasopressin
E. Inhibin

61. From Which structure inhibin is produced? (MARCH 2017)

A. Theca cells
B. Granulosa cells.
C. Cumulus oophorus
D. Corpus leuten
E. Leydig cells

62. Which hormone prevent regression of corpus luteum? (SEPT 2016)

A. HCG
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. HPL
E. FSH

63. Hormone that regulates appetite and is important in obesity? (SEPT 2016)

A. Leptin
B. Relaxin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone

64. The rate of growth hormone secretion follows a circadian rhythm. When is the highest peak of growth hormone release? (MARCH 2016)

A. Early morning
B. After exercise
C. Afternoon
D. Early sleep
E. Deep sleep

65. A 23-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic in her first pregnancy. Booking bloods reveal her Blood group O and her rhesus status to be cde/cde; her long-standing partner is also tested at her request and his blood group A with rhesus status CDe/CDe. What is the expected blood group of her fetus? (SEPT 2015)

A. A positive
B. A negative
C. O positive
D. O negative
E. AB positive

66. Precursor of testosterone in theca cell

A. Androstenedione
B. DHT
C. Estriol
D. Estradiol
E. Cholesterol

The title is used for overview, it is not visible in quiz. If you leave the title field empty, a title will be generated.

A) Para ventricular nucleus of hypothalamus
B) Acidophilic cells of anterior pituitary
C) Neuroendocrine cells of posterior pituitary

68. What kind of cells produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A. Chief cells
B. Parathynotic cells
C. Oxyphilic cells
D. C cells
E. Follicular cells

69. Androgen secreted through which layer of adrenal?

A. Zona fasciculata
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona glomerulosa

70. The graph showing normal spirometry of a preoperative woman. Which lung volume is indicated by the number 6 on the spirometry tracing?

A. Residual volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Tidal volume
E. Vital capacity

71. What is the change in plasma volume during pregnancy?

A.Increase 20 to 30%
B.Increase 30 to 50%
C.Increase 60 to 70%
D.Increase 50 to 70%

72. Which types of cells are phagocytic for residual bodies left over from the
process of spermiogenesis?

A. Testicular mesenchymal cells
B. Testicular macrophages
C. Fibroblast cells
D. Interstitial cells of Leydig
E. Sertoli cells

73. The amniotic fluid volume peaks at around 900ml. At what gestation does the amniotic fluid reach its maximum volume?

A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 35 weeks
D. 38 weeks
E. 40 weeks

74. According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non‐pregnant state?

A. Iron
B. Vitamin A
C. Folic Acid
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin D

75. Which of the following statements regarding thyroid function testing in pregnancy is true?

A. TSH levels increase in pregnancy
B. TSH levels remain constant through the trimesters
C. Total T3 levels drop in pregnancy
D. Free T3 levels drop during pregnancy
E. Thyroid hormone binding globulin levels drop during pregnancy

76. Regarding heart rate in pregnancy which of the following statements is true?

A. Heart rate decreases by 15 beats per minute
B. Heart rate remains constant
C. Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute
D. Heart rate increases by 25 beats per minute
E. None of the above

77. What percentage of haemoglobin is HbF in the newborn?

A. <0.5%
B. 1‐2%
C. 10‐20%
D. 25‐50%
E. 50‐90%

78. Cardiac output is calculated by

A. End diastolic volume X End systolic volume
B. End diastolic volume ‐ End systolic volume
C. End diastolic volume X Stroke volume
D. Stroke Volume X Heart Rate
E. End Systolic Volume X Heart Rate

79. What is the average lifespan of a basophil white blood cells ?

A. 3‐4 days
B. 10‐14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
E. 120 days

80. Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways?

A. Activates phospholipase‐C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
B. Releases cAMP that triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
C. Releases protein kinase A that triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
D. Releases protein kinase A that triggers extracellular Calcium ion release
E. None of the above

81. Where in the kidney is the majority of Bicarbonate reabsorbed ?

A. Bowmans Capsule
B. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
C. Descending Loop of Henle
D. Ascending Loop of Henle
E. Distal Convoluted Tubule

82. What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?

A. Hb Gower 1
B. Hb Gower 2
C. Hb Portland 1
D. Hb Portland 2
E. HbF

83. Placental production of hPL, hCG, oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

A. Endocrine
B. Exocrine
C. Apocrine
D. Autocrine
E. Intracrine

84. Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

A. Increased arterial pO2, decreased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
B. Increased arterial pO2, decreased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E1
C. Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
D. Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & increased Prostaglandin E2
E. None of the above

85. What is the typical volume increase from a non‐pregnant to term uterus?

A. 10ml to 5000ml
B. 100ml to 500ml
C. 1000ml to 5000ml
D. 10ml to 1000ml
E. 40ml to 1200ml

86. Which of the following is a potent stimulator of Aldosterone

A. Alkolosis
B. Acidosis
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyperkalaemia
E. Hypernatraemia

87. Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

A. 2‐3 hours
B. 12‐24 hours
C. 7‐14 days
D. 21‐28 days
E. None of the above

88. At what gestational age does the luteo‐placental shift occur?

A. 1‐2 weeks
B. 6‐8 weeks
C. 18‐20 weeks
D. 24‐28 weeks
E. 32‐36 weeks

89. In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

A. Haemoglobin < 90 g/l
B. Haemoglobin < 105 g/l
C. Haemoglobin < 110 g/l
D. Haemoglobin < 115 g/l
E. Haemoglobin < 130 g/l

90. What is the typical weight of a non‐pregnant premenopausal uterus?

A. 40g
B. 200g
C. 400g
D. 800g
E. 1200g

91. You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T‐score is ‐1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?

A. Normal bone density
B. Osteopenia
C. Severe Osteopenia
D. Osteoporosis
E. Severe Osteoporosis

92. Which of the following is a primary site of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) production?

A. Corpus Luteum
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Placenta
D. Hypothalamus
E. Maternal liver

93. Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy?

A. FRC
B. ERV
C. FEV1
D. Tidal Volume
E. ERV

94. During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis?

A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. Oestrogen and Progesterone
D. Prolactin and hPL (human Placental Lactogen)
E. Oxytocin and hPL

95. Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological

A. Diastolic murmur
B. T‐wave flattening in lead III on ECG
C. Systolic murmur
D. Left axis deviation on ECG
E. Third heart sound

96. During pregnancy the GFR changes as follows:

A. GFR remains the same
B. GFR decreases by 15%
C. GFR increases by 15%
D. GFR decreases by 40%
E. GFR increases by 40%

97. Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum?

A. Oxytocin
B. Progesterone
C. Dopamine
D. hPL
E. Prolactin

98. Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

A. Oxytocin
B. Progesterone and Oestragen
C. PGE2
D. PGE1
E. Prolactin

99. You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?

A. ALT
B. ALP
C. Bilirubin
D. Albumin
E. Calcium

100. Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone?

A. Oxytocin
B. hPL
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin

101. Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth??

A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. FSH
D. Progesterone
E. LH

102. Pregnant patients are at higher risk of thromboembolism due to a hypercoaguable state. Which of the following clotting factors reduces during pregnancy?

A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Fibrinogen
D. Factor X
E. Factor XI

103. At what gestation does the fetus starts swallowing?

A. 6 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 18 weeks
D. 24 weeks
E. 32 weeks

104. Dilatation of the uterine cervix at parturition is primarily achieved by:

A. Muscle relaxation under the influence of oestriol
B. Prostaglandin E1 mediated Interleukin release
C. Constriction of cervical small vessels
D. Macrophage mediated collagen degradation
E. Degradation of type I collagen by interstitial collagenase

105. What is the typical oxygen consumption in a 75kg non‐pregnant women?

A. 5ml/min
B. 15ml/min
C. 50ml/min
D. 150ml/min
E. 250ml/min

106. Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Blood volume remains constant
B. Blood Volume increases by approximately 5%
C. Blood Volume increases by approximately 10‐15%
D. Blood Volume increases by approximately 20‐25%
E. Blood Volume slowly increases by 40‐50%

107. Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

A. Foramen Ovale
B. Ductus Arteriosis
C. Arteria Umbilicalis
D. Ductus Venosus
E. Umbilical Arteries

108. Which of the following changes to biliary physiology occurs during pregnancy?

A. Increased canalicular excretion
B. Increased water content of bile
C. Increased contractility of gallbladder
D. Increased lithogenic index
E. Increased rate of gallbladder emptying

109. Which of the following is responsible for Aquaporin‐2 protein channel openings in the collecting duct?

A. Angiotensin
B. Angiotensin II
C. ADH
D. Aldosterone
E. Renin

110. Which of the following increases during pregnancy?

A. Total Lung Capacity
B. Functional Residual Capacity
C. Expiratory Reserve Volume
D. Tidal Volume
E. Vital Capacity

111. What percentage of haemoglobin is HbF by 6 months of age?

A. <2%
B. 5‐10%
C. 20‐25%
D. 50%
E. 70‐90%

112. 99% of body calcium is in what form?

A. Calcium Bicarbonate
B. Calcium Gluconate
C. Calcium Phosphate
D. Calcium Carbonate
E. Calcium Hydroxide

113. Minute ventilation in pregnancy increases due to which of the following?

A. Effects of gravid uterus on diaphragm
B. Dliutional anaemia
C. Increased renal excretion of bicarbonate
D. Increased circulating oestragen
E. Increased circulating progesterone

114. Upregulation of urea movement through urea transport proteins in the collecting duct is an effect of which of the following

A. Angiotensin
B. Angiotensin II
C. Aldosterone
D. Renin
E. Vasopressin

115. What is the maximum normal menstrual blood loss?

A. 35‐40ml
B. 60‐65ml
C. 80‐85ml
D. 150‐200ml
E. 350‐400ml

116. Which of the following would you expect to be raised in pregnancy?

A. Albumin
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. AST
E. Bilirubin

117. At what stage of fetal development does fetal haemoglobin (HbF) replace embryonic haemoglobin (HbE) as the primary form of haemoglobin?

A. 4‐6 weeks
B. 10‐12 weeks
C. 20‐24 weeks
D. 32‐36 weeks
E. At Birth

118. At what gestation does the fetus start producing urine?

A. 2‐4 weeks
B. 5‐7 weeks
C. 8‐11 weeks
D. 12‐16 weeks
E. 18‐22 weeks

119. Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately

A. 30ml/min
B. 45ml/min
C. 175ml/min
D. 300ml/min
E. 750ml/min

120. Following parturition how long does involution of the uterus take?

A. 24‐72 hours
B. 1‐2 weeks
C. 4‐6 weeks
D. 12‐16 weeks
E. None of the above

121. Which of the following is the main reason for active management of the 3rd stage of labour?

A. Reduce fetal distress
B. Reduce risk of perineal tearing
C. Prevent postpartum haemorrhage
D. Reduce risk of jaundice in the newborn
E. Reduce risk of anaemia in the newborn

122. Which of the following is a pro‐thrombotic agent?

A. Protein C
B. Protein S
C. Anti‐Thrombin III
D. Thromboplastin
E. Plasmin

123. Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?

A. Decreases by approximately 25%
B. Remains constant
C. Increases by approximately 10%
D. Increases by approximately 25%
E. Increases by approximately 50%

124. Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Cardiac Output decreases by approximately 10‐15% during pregnancy
B. Cardiac Output remains constant
C. Cardiac Output increases by approximately 10‐15% during pregnancy
D. Cardiac Output increases by approximately 40‐50% during pregnancy
E. None of the above

125. Breast milk is produced by the secretions of the epithelial cells of the acinar. Which of the following is an accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?

A. Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%
B. Fat 10% Protein 4% Sugar 20%
C. Fat 10% Protein 10% Sugar 30%
D. Fat 18% Protein 5% Sugar 5%
E. Fat 18% Protein 15% Sugar 1%

126. Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time?

A. Factor V deficiency
B. Von Willebrand disease
C. Hemophilia
D. Aspirin therapy
E. Protein C Deficiency

127. The primary stimulus for ADH (anti‐diuretic hormone AKA Vasopressin) release is?

A. Low serum osmolality
B. High serum osmolality
C. Low blood volume
D. High Blood volume
E. Reduced ECF volume

Physiology Extra Questions

Physiology Extra Questions

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